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Sunday, October 28, 2007 - 5:29pmSanction this postReply
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In a the recent poll discussion, Robert Bidinotto wrote ...

If one believes, for example, that "rights" are natural and inherent (the "intrinsic" view of rights, held by the Founders), one will tend, over time, to be drawn toward the anarchist and "non-interventionist" conclusions prevalent in many libertarian circles.

Likewise, a religious view of "inherent natural rights" will lead to the anti-abortion views of conservatives. Etc. Ron Paul's understanding of "rights" is clearly of this traditional, "intrinsicist" variety, as witness his positions on a host of such issues.


But here are the kind of premises required for this kind of faulty reasoning ...


(1) If one believes that rights are natural and inherent, then one has to believe -- on pain of contradiction -- in a universal NIOF rule (rather than a properly-conceptualized NIOF principle).
(2) All anarcho-libertarians believe thusly.
=============================
Therefore, anarcho-libs -- without exception -- are "non-interventionists" because of a belief in natural, inherent rights.


While this argument may be valid, it is not sound. That's because Premise 1 is false. Rights can be conceptualized as natural and inherent without contradicting a properly-conceptualized NIOF principle (rather than universal rule). Here's a lifeboat analogy ...

If it's you and Gilligan on the sinking USS Minnow, and there's one life-jacket left -- then it's contextually-appropriate to take it from Gilligan by force and to let the poor man drown. Now, the reason it's proper to "violate" Gilligan's "inherent" right to a human life -- is because the context doesn't provide for a humanly-livable life. Emergencies are valid exceptions to NIOF.

Also, if you were in a real-life "Survivor" or "Lost" kind of a situation; and you witness a man rape and kill another man's daughter; it's okay to "off him" right on the spot -- even though you're not the daughter's father. Even though the rapist/murderer has done NOTHING to you, personally. The reason that it's okay to "off" people who are so inhuman, is because acting human is required for the exercise of human rights. Now, I'm not saying that you only have the right to do what's right; there are situations were you do wrong -- but you do wrong in a humanly way -- and you get a pass or maybe a "slight" retributive backlash.

If a toddler forceably takes a toy from another toddler, then the proper response -- in the absence of disciplining adults -- is for the victim to physically harm the offending "toddler-perpetrator." This is a natural and healthy reaction to getting "jacked" like that. The same goes for adults in the absence of an orderly society. They should "jump" or "beat-down" one another whenever there's a predatory offense. As a bystander to such retributive behavior, I would not feel any natural threat by the physically-forceful (harm-inducing) reaction of the victim. Here's more on this subject from a guy named "Jim" ...

    • The medieval/legal definition: Natural law cannot be defined in the way that positive law is defined, and to attempt to do so plays into the hands of the enemies of freedom. Natural law is best defined by pointing at particular examples, as a biologist defines a species by pointing at a particular animal, a type specimen preserved in formalin. (This definition is the most widely used, and is probably the most useful definition for lawyers)

    • The historical state of nature definition: Natural law is that law which corresponds to a spontaneous order in the absence of a state and which is enforced, (in the absence of better methods), by individual unorganized violence, in particular the law that historically existed (in so far as any law existed) during the dark ages among the mingled barbarians that overran the Roman Empire.

    • The medieval / philosophical definition: Natural law is that law, which it is proper to uphold by unorganized individual violence, whether a state is present or absent, and for which, in the absence of orderly society, it is proper to punish violators by unorganized individual violence. Locke gives the example of Cain, in the absence of orderly society, and the example of a mugger, where the state exists, but is not present at the crime. Note Locke's important distinction between the state and society. For example trial by jury originated in places and times where there was no state power, or where the state was violently hostile to due process and the rule of law but was too weak and distant to entirely suppress it.

    • The scientific/ sociobiological/ game theoretic/ evolutionary definition: Natural law is, or follows from, an ESS for the use of force: Conduct which violates natural law is conduct such that, if a man were to use individual unorganized violence to prevent such conduct, or, in the absence of orderly society, use individual unorganized violence to punish such conduct, then such violence would not indicate that the person using such violence, (violence in accord with natural law) is a danger to a reasonable man. This definition is equivalent to the definition that comes from the game theory of iterated three or more player non zero sum games, applied to evolutionary theory. The idea of law, of actions being lawful or unlawful, has the emotional significance that it does have, because this ESS for the use of force is part of our nature.

    Utilitarian and relativist philosophers demand that advocates of natural law produce a definition of natural law that is independent of the nature of man and the nature of the world.


From:
http://www.jim.com/rights.html

Also, it's not true that ...

... "inherent natural rights" will lead to the anti-abortion views ...
... and, though I realize that you prefaced this with "religious" -- which makes your statement right, but contextually irrelevant; because the "R"-word effectively taints every attempt to even reason from premises -- I want to address the logic of actual, de-mystified Natural Rights (the "right" Rights).

In my first encounter here at RoR (then SOLOHQ), I had a go-around with a wily character calling himself: "G. Stolyarov II." In that "go-around" -- I demonstrated (not postulated, demonstrated) how natural, inherent rights don't contradict abortions.

In short, rights are that which are -- in order to avoid contradiction -- exercise-able. When it would be impossible to exercise your individual rights -- such as when you're not yet an individual, but instead depend on another's nutrition and circulation for your minute-by-minute existence -- then you don't have any rights yet (because it isn't yet even possible for you to exercise them). Indeed, even the concept of "you" is still fuzzy -- while you're physically-inseparable from another freely-existing individual.

When someone's born human, they've got inalienable rights (in virtue of the kind of a thing that they are). We often limit someone's exercise of their natural, inherent rights -- as when we restrict a criminal's freedom to do anything that he chooses -- but we cannot ever limit their actual rights, per se; as we're not even in charge of that kind of thing, Identity is. Freed criminals don't get "rights" back (their rights were never taken away) -- they get the exercise of their natural rights back; that is, until and unless they "F"-up again and act inhuman to the point of violating others' rights!

Ed

(Edited by Ed Thompson on 10/28, 5:42pm)


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Post 1

Monday, October 29, 2007 - 3:40amSanction this postReply
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This matured view on the right rights also underscores how rights aren't things that are ever "granted" by a state or even the society in which one resides.

Our natural, inherent rights -- whenever & wherever their exercise is possible -- are inalienable. If no one in particular can take them away, then no one in particular can grant them either. Instead, they're ours in virtue of being a human being. We just have to keep ourselves in those kinds of contexts where their exercise is possible -- or we're done for, as a race of beings.

Ed


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Wednesday, October 31, 2007 - 4:48pmSanction this postReply
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Wednesday, October 31, 2007 - 7:18pmSanction this postReply
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From the new online ARL ...

The United States held that man's life is his by right (which means: by moral principle and by his nature), that a right is the property of an individual, that society as such has no rights, and that the only moral purpose of a government is the protection of individual rights.--"Man's Rights," The Virtue of Selfishness, 93.
From:
http://aynrandlexicon.com/lexicon/america.html

Note how there are 2 things going on -- a "moral principle," and a "nature." Moral principles can be made in 2 broad ways -- for, or against, nature. As for nature, well, nature just is.

And rights just are (though we may incorrectly follow some principles which disregard their existence).

Ed


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Wednesday, October 31, 2007 - 7:38pmSanction this postReply
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Ed, I thank you for these posts, the clarity they bring...

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Thursday, November 1, 2007 - 4:58amSanction this postReply
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Thanks for the positive feedback, Gigi.

Ed


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Thursday, November 1, 2007 - 9:18amSanction this postReply
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Ed says:

"And rights just are...."

Ed, that statement summarizes perfectly the erroneous, traditional, intrinsicist "natural rights" view of the Founders, who believed that some metaphysical essences called "rights" exist as a kind of indelible stuff within human nature.

That was not Rand's view of rights. She described rights as "moral principles defining and sanctioning man's freedom of action in a social context." Rights, then, are a subset of morality: moral principles to be specifically applied to social relationships.

But principles are not things, and moral principles do not exist as facts of nature. Rather, they are human identifications of natural, factual relationships. The idea that the moral principles of rights "just are" is no more intelligible or defensible than saying that any other moral principles, like honesty or integrity, "just are."

The facts that give rise to principles certainly exist in nature; but principles themselves are not existents. Likewise, the factual requirements of human nature (food, water, freedom, etc.) "just are," and they are thus metaphysically absolute; but the moral principles themselves (rights) are not existents, either.

The the moral principles governing human relationships (rights) must be held and applied absolutely -- IF the goal is to further human life and well-being. But holding and applying moral principles "absolutely" is not the same thing as saying that the principles themselves exist in nature as "absolutes." That latter, traditional, platonic/intrinsicist conception of rights is precisely what Rand challenged and rejected.



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Thursday, November 1, 2007 - 10:08amSanction this postReply
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Mr. Bidinotto, your last post was uncomplicated, concise, well-articulated and perfectly reasoned.   Thank you.

 

Have you ever noticed that whenever people get in over their heads on a subject, they often try to conceal it by never shutting up about it?  That's why of all the adjectives I applied to your post, Mr. Bidinotto, my personal favorite is: concise. I’ve always liked that old-saying, “brevity is the soul of wit”, but to the end of it, I always like to add the words, "and wisdom".  

 

Let me say it again: great post, sir!

 

K

(Edited by Karyn Daniels on 11/01, 10:17am)


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Thursday, November 1, 2007 - 12:54pmSanction this postReply
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Karyn, thank you very much.

Was THAT concise enough?

;^)

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Thursday, November 1, 2007 - 1:51pmSanction this postReply
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Ed, at the end of Post 0, you wrote,
When someone's born human, they've got inalienable rights (in virtue of the kind of a thing that they are). We often limit someone's exercise of their natural, inherent rights -- as when we restrict a criminal's freedom to do anything that he chooses -- but we cannot ever limit their actual rights, per se; as we're not even in charge of that kind of thing, Identity is. Freed criminals don't get "rights" back (their rights were never taken away).
If a criminal is incarcerated, his freedom is taken away. But in taking away his freedom, the state doesn't violate his right to it, because (as a criminal) he has no right to remain a free man. If he did, the state would be violating his right to freedom by incarcerating him. Nevertheless, the state doesn't deprive him of his right to freedom by incarcerating him, he deprives himself of that right by violating the rights of others. The state is simply exercising its right to restrict his freedom in response to that violation.

So, it's not that by incarcerating a criminal, the state simply limits the exercise of rights which he nevertheless retains while behind bars. On the contrary, by violating the rights of others, he forfeits his right to freedom, which in turn gives the state the right to incarcerate him. Otherwise, the state would have no right to interfere with his freedom.

So, I'd have to disagree with your concluding statement that "Freed criminals don't get 'rights' back (their rights were never taken away)." On the contrary, they do indeed get their rights back, once they've served their sentence. However, it is not the state that took them away, but the criminal who gave them away, by violating the rights of others.

- Bill
(Edited by William Dwyer on 11/01, 6:03pm)


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Thursday, November 1, 2007 - 2:52pmSanction this postReply
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Robert Bidinotto:
Ed, that statement summarizes perfectly the erroneous, traditional, intrinsicist "natural rights" view of the Founders, who believed that some metaphysical essences called "rights" exist as a kind of indelible stuff within human nature.
This is "perfectly reasoned"? Life, liberty and the pursit of happiness is some "indelible stuff within human nature"? Moreover, the Founding Fathers were quite influenced by John Locke, who strongly criticized the notion of Platonic or Aristotelain essence ("indelible stuff") and was a strong advocate of "natural rights", arguing from a "state of nature".



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Thursday, November 1, 2007 - 8:46pmSanction this postReply
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Robert says:

Rights, then, are a subset of morality: moral principles to be specifically applied to social relationships.

But principles are not things, and moral principles do not exist as facts of nature. Rather, they are human identifications of natural, factual relationships.
Ed says:

But Robert, to say that rights are merely one kind of a principle "to be specifically applied to social relationships" (assuming that other kinds of principles exist), and that they aren't things (i.e., that which has objective existence, outside of someone's subjective impressions of them) -- is inaccurate. And that is what you are saying -- even if you didn't mean to. You are saying that rights have no metaphysical grounding -- because metaphysics is something constant and objective (and you think that rights aren't constant and objective; or you wouldn't claim that they don't exist; until we think about them -- as you clearly do).

For you, rights exist when we think straight -- about what is required for being a human being. For me, rights exist even when we don't -- which is how we can say that certain rights-violating societies are wrong or inferior (even if they haven't been epistemologically exposed to the more correct ways of doing things).

Robert says:

The facts that give rise to principles certainly exist in nature; but principles themselves are not existents.
Ed says:

Think about what it is that you are saying here, Robert. Think about what it means to be an existent. My own definition of an existent may be fruitful here (2004; reference upon request):

"The units of the concept 'existence' are every entity, attribute, action, event, or phenomenon that exists, has ever existed or will ever exist. These 'units' can be indicated ostensibly. Existence includes the subjective contents of the human mind, as well as the intentional objects of human thought that exist for 2 or more minds (which allow us to both be talking about one and the same thing)."

In order to say that principles aren't existents, then you are obliged to say that principles aren't even subjective contents of a human mind, let alone intentional objects of discussion -- which is really quite absurd, when you think about it enough.

Ed

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Thursday, November 1, 2007 - 9:06pmSanction this postReply
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Bill,

If a criminal is incarcerated, his freedom is taken away.
Not entirely. An imprisoned criminal still has the choice whether to take a nap, or not. We don't take that "right" away from him or her. In order to "take" rights away from someone fully, then we have got to be in the position to dictate their minute-by-minute existence (such as is done in slavery). A slave cannot even decide to take a nap without permission -- and it is permission that effectively trumps the exercise of rights. Prisoners may take naps at will, which demonstrates that we haven't taken away their rights to freedom (but only a measure of the exercise of existing rights).

... by violating the rights of others, he forfeits his right to freedom, which in turn gives the state the right to incarcerate him. Otherwise, the state would have no right to interfere with his freedom.
By violating others' rights, he (or she) forfeits his right to the full exercise of his freedom. There's still freedom to take a nap, on whim. This is something not addressed by your post.

Ed


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Post 13

Thursday, November 1, 2007 - 9:11pmSanction this postReply
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Am I being "concise" enough for you, Karyn?

Or should my posts be more short than that?

;-)

Ed


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Friday, November 2, 2007 - 5:09amSanction this postReply
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Ed,

There is a difference between the abilities and inabilities that people actually have and what you wish they had, or what an "Objectivist" wishes they had.

"Rights", no matter the kind (human rights, animal rights, natural rights, ...) are wishes of abilities and inabilities for some group.

When someone goes against your wishes, you can do something about it to discourage/hamper them and others from doing it again. This is how rights are enforced, to make the chosen actions of people approximate the abilities and inabilities that you wish they had.

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Friday, November 2, 2007 - 5:32amSanction this postReply
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I'm surprised no one has cited Rand's definition of rights as "conditions of existence required by man's nature for his proper survival." These conditions, such as freedom of action, may be recognized or not.

Rand often gave different definitions in different contexts, from different angles. (She uses two senses of "number" in Introduction to Objectivist Epistemology.) So in the fundamental sense, rights are inherent in man.

The freedom to get out of jail after murdering someone is not a "condition of existence required by man's nature for his proper survival."


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Friday, November 2, 2007 - 2:34pmSanction this postReply
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All,

Please go back and reread the first page of Rand's seminal article on this subject, "Man's Rights." With your copy firmly in hand, go down to paragraph two:
"Rights" are a moral concept--the concept that provides a logical transition from the principles guiding an individuals's actions to the principles guiding his relationship with others--the concept that preserves and protects individual morality in a social context--the link between the moral code of a man and the legal code of a society, between ethics and politics.

Unless you are prepared to reject Rand's epistemology and adopt Aristotles's--to argue, as the latter did, that concepts are metaphysical rather than epistemological (see Rand's Introduction to Objectivist Epistemology, near the end of chapter 5, where she distinguishes Aristotle's concept theory from her own)--then you must conclude that "rights," being concepts, cannot be existents in a metaphysical sense. As concepts, rights are ideas--products of man's thinking. They identify, in the form of moral principles, the factual conditions required for human survival and well-being in social contexts.

You cannot say of concepts--products of human thought--"they just are." Thus, while the facts of reality give rise to the concept of rights, and while they thus must be respected absolutely in the proper contexts, "rights" themselves do not exist as as some inherent aspect of human nature.

Rand goes on in this same essay to write, "A 'right' is a moral principle defining and sanctioning a man's freedom of action in a social context." You cannot say of moral principles--also products of human thought--"they just are."

Neither as concepts nor as moral principles can "rights" have metaphysical status: they are ideas, not things. This does not undermine their reality, importance, or validity as requirements of man in social contexts. But it means that, raised alone on a desert island, a man would never have conceived of a moral principle such as "rights," nor have any need for the concept. A moral principle that defines social boundary lines does not arise from nor apply to an asocial context.

After establishing both the moral and the social context of rights, Rand goes on in the essay to quote her famous passage from Galt's Speech in Atlas Shrugged which underscores the conditional, "if/then" nature of rights as a moral principle:
Rights are conditions of existence required by man's nature for his proper survival. If man is to live on earth, it is right for him to use his mind, it is right for him to act on his own free judgment, it is right to work for his values and to keep the product of his work. If life on earth is his purpose, he has a right to live as a rational being: nature forbids him the irrational.

This is NOT the intrinsicist language of "inherent rights," which treats the concept or principle of rights as metaphysical--as things that "just are." Indeed, you will not find Rand using any such traditional "natural rights" language in her mature, definitive works on this topic. Nor is it possible to reconcile logically the intrinsicist conception of rights either with Rand's language or with her objective theory of concepts.

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Friday, November 2, 2007 - 2:59pmSanction this postReply
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Neither as concepts nor as moral principles can "rights" have metaphysical status: they are ideas, not things.

Il incomparabile, Bidinotto!

K


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Friday, November 2, 2007 - 3:22pmSanction this postReply
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I fully agree with the statement: "But it means that, raised alone on a desert island, a man would never have conceived of a moral principle such as 'rights,' nor have any need for the concept. A moral principle that defines social boundary lines does not arise from nor apply to an asocial context." All that I, personally, mean when I say that rights are inherent is that, in the nature of man, it is a metaphysical fact that man must live in a certain way if he is to survive. This state of affairs gives rise to the moral concept that man ought to live that way. In the context of society, this concept is implemented by means of the idea of rights.
 
But since these necessary conditions are objective facts, and since morality itself describes an objective state of affairs, a relationship between man and reality, I think it is quite valid to speak of rights as inhering in man. I believe that is what Ayn Rand was emphasizing when, after giving the definition of rights that I presented, she went on to say "If man is to live on earth, it is right for him to use his mind, it is right for him to act on his own free judgment, it is right to work for his values and to keep the product of his work." She is viewing rightness as something, a relationship, existing out there, and connecting it to the more conventional idea of propriety. 

(Edited by Rodney Rawlings on 11/02, 3:29pm)


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Friday, November 2, 2007 - 6:52pmSanction this postReply
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What Rodney said.

Ed


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