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Saturday, October 22, 2005 - 3:06pmSanction this postReply
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"Objectivism tells you that you must not accept any idea or conviction unless you can demonstrate its truth by means of reason."
This is a quote from Ayn Rand, that I was telling an acquaintance of mine, when discussing Objectivism with him. However, he brought up a contention, that I'm not sure how to respond to. Perhaps some of you can help.
 His premise basically follows that ideas and convictions derive their truth from experience, not reason.
He provided a hypothetical scenario whereby a person convinced oneself through reason that there is no gravity, but upon observing the world, he/she finds that gravity [i]does[/i] appear to exist - so which conclusion should one support? The one determined through reason, or the one arrived through empirical evidence?

It seems to me that his use of "reason" in that context, is in fact, not the proper use of reason - at least, not in Ayn Rand's case.

I'd appreciate any help here. Thank you.


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Post 1

Saturday, October 22, 2005 - 4:26pmSanction this postReply
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"His premise basically follows that ideas and convictions derive their truth from experience, not reason. "

A quick counter example: Rand uses the example of a pencil in a glass of water. The pencil seems to bend in the water, due to the refraction and such. The observer's visual experience tells him that the pencil is bent. But if he pulls it out, and it appears straight again, that's a new experience. The experience tells him nothing about the nature of the supposed bending. The ability to reason, which presupposed experience, will lead him to the right answer, if properly applied. (Reason based on non-objective evidence will lead him to the wrong answer.)

The other example is when a child hears about Santa Clause and gets a glimpse of him at the mall. The child's experience is that he has been told of Santa, sees him, therefore he must be real, right? The senses are not wrong, he has seen something...it's the interpretation behind the experience that matters.

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Post 2

Saturday, October 22, 2005 - 4:54pmSanction this postReply
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Warren, after Kant and Berkeley came along, folks began to think of "reason-in-itself" -- as if it could REALLY be separated from experience. But that ain't never how it works, man. As a weird historical quirk, it seems that it was primarily folks whose name started with A (Aristotle, Abelard, Aquinas, and Ayn Rand) who continued to think correctly about the inter-relation of reason and experience. Peikoff put it simply (caps for italics):

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Man's knowledge is not acquired by logic apart from experience or by experience apart from logic, but BY THE APPLICATION OF LOGIC TO EXPERIENCE.
===========


As you can see, logic stands in for reason in Peikoff's quote. The reason that it's okay to switch words -- without switching meaning -- is provided by the following quote from Rand herself (caps for italics):

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The METHOD which reason employs in this process is LOGIC--and logic is the art of NON-CONTRADICTORY IDENTIFICATION.
===========


So logic is the method of reason. Contradictions can't exist. When found, then one or another of our premises are wrong (and we must go back and look). Another way to say this is that logic and experience are always working together. Logic is like the watchdog that lets us knowing when we are wrongly interpreting experience.

In humans, one doesn't occur without the other (except perhaps, when folks are under the influence of hallucinogenic drugs). Even then, though. Even in a buzzing, confusing world of hallucination -- man uses logic (flees from monsters, tries to pet the pretty pink elephants, etc.). Even 18 month olds have reasoning capabilities -- inferred by the 'stare factor' (their fascination with magic). Animals aren't fascinated with magic (my dog never stopped in any kind of wonder -- if I put one ball behind my back and then came back holding 2 of them).

Warren that should've answered your question. I have something to say about Rand's mention of reason, now. But this is not pivotal to your point -- so please don't misuse what follows to argue against the above (because what follows comes mostly from my head, not Rand's).
===================
===================

First, here's Rand on reason:

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Reason is the faculty that identifies and integrates the material provided by man's senses.
===============


But, as you'll see below, I like Rand's later paraphrasing of her view much better:

===============
Reason integrates man's perceptions ...
===============


Also, re-paraphrasing Rand's paraphrase of reason might add even more precision, without losing any accuracy (not her words exactly, but same exact theme ... )

Re-Paraphrased Rand:
===============
Reason is the cognitive faculty that integrates that which is provided to man in perceptual awareness.
===============


Now, Rand had initially said that reason "identifies and integrates the material provided by the senses." When we are speaking of new, bare particulars though, then I'd have a problem with this statement. My problem with this is that lower animals -- which remember bare particulars -- also easily identify them ( ... that which is provided to them in perceptual awareness). The solution is to think of the identification that man makes -- as an identified category of things (not just a remembered thing, as it is in animals -- but identification of an instantiation of a member of an integrated class of things).

So there it is. If you had no faculty of reason, you could still be perceptually aware of things. But then everything that you ever saw, smelled, tasted, touch, or heard -- would be a bare particular, merely remembered or crudely associated with other bare particulars. This is why a dog who remembers being beaten by a man in a uniform -- will likely react to men in uniform, the rest of its entire life. To the dog, the uniform is crudely associated with the brutality it remembers.

If all you had was Kant's "pure reason," then you would not be perceptually aware of the world around you. Think of Helen Keller here. She made it to the human level of conceptual awareness -- without the 2 primary special senses (sight and hearing)! Before she made it, she reacted to everything as if it was a bare particular. Her only way out of this buzzing confusion, was for her teacher to utilize her sense of touch in a manner that allow Helen to make more than crude associations! What a wonderful thing to have happened, too (Ms. Keller is known for her thoughtful writings!) -- because she had a metaphorical chance to be born again, as an actualized rational animal!

The only way Helen made it to the conceptual level, however, was by non-contradictorily integrating that which was made present to her in perceptual awareness. Rand spoke of the evil of messing with Helen Keller. One day running water over her hand, and calling it water; the next day running sand over her hand and calling it water, too -- that would've been so evil for someone to do to her (to intentionally prevent her from being able to piece together her perceptions in a non-contradictory way -- to intentionally limit her conceptual awareness).

The human mind is the seedbed for conceptual awareness, perceptual awareness is the fertilizer that can allow something conceptual to grow there.

Ed
[I cried a little, while writing about the details of Helen Keller's new and wonderful chance to be fully human -- it must have been awful for her before that, totally alone and afraid of any new thing that touched her]


Post 3

Saturday, October 22, 2005 - 5:00pmSanction this postReply
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Warren,

Joe got to the point much more succinctly than I did (thanks Joe!). Tackling his 2 examples first, would be the quickest way to understand -- in my opinion. His examples are easily conceived of and they speak to the issue of an inter-relation of logic and experience. My post gets off on a tangent -- it's less clear and distinct.

Ed

Post 4

Saturday, October 22, 2005 - 5:27pmSanction this postReply
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But your points elaborate Rand's simpler explanation, so thank you, Ed. :)
(Edited by Joe Maurone
on 10/22, 5:29pm)


Post 5

Saturday, October 22, 2005 - 5:34pmSanction this postReply
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I want to rephrase that last analogy in my original response. I had said:

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The human mind is the seedbed for conceptual awareness, perceptual awareness is the fertilizer that can allow something conceptual to grow there.
==============

Here goes ...

The human mind is the acreage for conceptual awareness (the "land" or "foundation" whereupon concepts could be built up), logic is the architect that can build something conceptual there, and perceptions are the raw materials that logic recombines in order to build a higher level of awareness.

This analogy is more correct. It shows that the mind is active (not passive) in concept-formation -- a key aspect of reality that is missed by many professional philosophers (Plato, Descartes, Locke, Hume, Kant, Wittgenstein).

It could be added that all perception is, is detection of difference (individual bare particulars that stand out amongst all the other ones). Perceived similarity then, is merely a lack of perceived difference -- amongst a background of perceptually-different bare particulars. Rand's concept of measurement omission takes it from there (beyond the perceptual, into the conceptual).

Sorry Warren (if this is a gross over-answer)! But what can I say? I'm easily enthused by epistemological discussion!

Ed

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Saturday, October 22, 2005 - 5:55pmSanction this postReply
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Dangit, Joe! Can't you see my motivation? I wanted to elaborate on your fine points! Fine then, I'll do this myself (if you want something done ... ).

Pencil in water = perceived bent-ness

Pencil out of water = perceived straightness

But pencil -- even if held under water -- can't be bent when force is applied (it breaks!)
=============

Therefore: apparent contradiction


Differences are noted in the world (e.g. ice is colder than fire, etc.).

The differences are robust and hold regardless of time, place, particular observers, and particular individual wishes or beliefs.

Logic is applied.
=============

Existence is Identity.


Pencil in the glass of water is acknowledged as perceptual awareness of 2 identities (water & pencil), not one.
=============

Water is held suspect for the new perception of the self-same pencil.


Experiments with water (ie. shining light through it) reveal refraction.
=============

Problem solved (by the application of logic to experience).

Ed









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Saturday, October 22, 2005 - 6:05pmSanction this postReply
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Lol! Ed, I was just pointing out that I was paraphrasing Rand's examples; didn't want to claim that they were mine.

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Post 8

Saturday, October 22, 2005 - 7:19pmSanction this postReply
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Warren-
Your friend is correct in one aspect:  Metaphysics trumps epistemology.  However, reason is the only way that we can grasp and understand reality as it is provided to us by our senses.  Anyone who attempts to divorce reason from reality is attempting the meaningless.  So in this way, what we experience is necessary to any knowledge.  What your friend seems to fail to realize is that without reason, all of his experience that is offered to him via his senses is nothing more than a chaotic white-noise.  He has said absolutely nothing so far that vitiates the neccessity of reason.  Did you notice that his very argument utilized his faculty to reason.  The next time he says this, just ask him if he can restate his argument in a way that uses only experience divorced from reason(which is an impossibililty).  I think he will get the picture then.


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Post 9

Saturday, October 22, 2005 - 11:01pmSanction this postReply
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Joe, no worries. I do admit to salivating about being able to talk about your real-life examples in light of objective epistemology though! The Santa Claus example is a bit of a hurdle (so I've put it off), as it involves communication with others, in order to get into possession of the truth of the matter. A sole, unaided human being, can gain possession of the truth about bent-pencils, though.

Jody, I like your "take the reason-free challenge" line of argument. Folks have to adopt reason in order to even legitimately organize an argument -- brilliant! It cuts out the roots of all counter-arguments (takes away their foundation), rather than clipping at their leaves. Well said.

Ed

Post 10

Sunday, October 23, 2005 - 6:50amSanction this postReply
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Ed and Joe,

You guys pretty much covered it. Very good.

Jody,
... just ask him if he can restate his argument in a way that uses only experience divorced from reason...
LOLOLOLOLOL...

Right on.

Michael


Post 11

Sunday, October 23, 2005 - 4:19pmSanction this postReply
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Warren: “His premise basically follows that ideas and convictions derive their truth from experience, not reason.”

The key phrase here is “derive their truth from”, in other words, the above quote is claiming that experience is the ultimate arbiter of the truth of any contention. Your friend appears to be arguing from a particular empiricist perspective, that all of our knowledge is ultimately grounded in our experience of the world.

Rand’s position is that the ultimate grounding of knowledge is sense perception, but since we experience the world via sense perception, her position is essentially the same as your friend’s.

Unfortunately, the quote from Rand appears to say something else: “Objectivism tells you that you must not accept any idea or conviction unless you can demonstrate its truth by means of reason.” The key phrase here is “demonstrate its truth by”. Rand appears to be saying that the ultimate ground of knowledge is reason, and this comment has all the hallmarks of rationalism, which is the antithesis of empiricism.

To properly answer your friend, you would need to clarify his position, and also ascertain Rand’s position: what does she regard as the ultimate ground of knowledge: reason or experience?

Brendan


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Post 12

Sunday, October 23, 2005 - 9:20pmSanction this postReply
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Brendan, you wrote:

===========
... you would need to clarify his position, and also ascertain Rand’s position: what does she regard as the ultimate ground of knowledge: reason or experience?
===========


Brendan, what part of:

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Man's knowledge is not acquired by logic apart from experience or by experience apart from logic, but BY THE APPLICATION OF LOGIC TO EXPERIENCE.
===========

... don't you understand?

Knowledge is acquired by applying reason to experience. What gives, Brendan? What's your beef, huh?

I've interacted with you for over a year now -- and all I see from you is 'groundless' beef (pardon the pun). You take a sentence or two, fail to integrate it with a larger philosophy that allows for that very integration, and then scream that the sky is falling.

I expect more from seasoned, rational individuals, than this limited, Chicken Little mentality -- that your arguments so eloquently embody.

Ed




Post 13

Monday, October 24, 2005 - 2:50amSanction this postReply
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Ed: “Knowledge is acquired by applying reason to experience. What gives, Brendan? What's your beef, huh?”

No beef, Ed, just striving for clarity. The claim that I was addressing is that “ideas and convictions derive their truth from experience, not reason”. In other words, this is a claim that knowledge is justified by experience.

Rand’s view of reason is that it is the faculty that identifies and integrates the material provided by man's senses. In other words, it is the senses that are in contact with reality, and reason knows reality via the senses. In that case, she is arguing that knowledge is ultimately justified by sense experience.

Brendan


Post 14

Tuesday, October 25, 2005 - 11:14pmSanction this postReply
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Okay folks. I'm back - I wanted to wait until the discussion/argument was completed between me and my acquaintance, but alas, it's still going - but I think we're getting much closer to the end of the argument.

 I must give thanks to you all, for providing me with ammunition to destroy my anti-objectivist acquaintance of doom - and a special thanks to Joe, Ed and Jody - great points there. [Joe + Ed = Jody? Hey!]

At first, the argument was firm, clear and crisp.. but then somewhere after that, I sort of lost my composure - and the whole discussion was a little "off" for a while, and both him and I were getting confused at each other's contentions, spiraling down a path of miscommunication, misinterpretation and misunderstandings. So I finally decided to pull back and gather his core contentions, and see if I understood him correctly.  I made a list of his key points, presented them to him and asked him if they were true. Not surprisingly, it took him a long, long, long time for him to eat his own words. Yet, surprisingly, he managed to swallow all of them - to my amazement. I have now verified the list, and here it is:

1.) Empirical evidence is the sole source of knowledge.
2.) Empirical basis is the sole determinant in judging the correctness of statements.
3.)Logic "as a pretender to truth" is exclusively concerned with structure of statements and not their references to reality, nor any references to reality.

From what  I've gathered, by the phrase "pretender to truth", he is saying "logic is superficial thing - it's just about non-contradicting statements, so what?" Or something along those lines.

And, last, but not least:

4.) Contradictions exist Objectively.

The argument went something like this:

Me: Contradictions don't exist in reality because reality simply is as it is and does not contradict itself.

Him: Not so. Writes on a piece of paper: "A is true and A is false" That's a contradiction that you should be able to plainly see right there, on the paper. Plainly, that statement is a contradiction; plainly, that statement exists. Whether it is true or not is another issue, and can only be determined by the particular references to reality of "A" and "not A".

Then he continues: "If you say that reality is consistent with itself, I would agree with that. However, contradiction, in logic, refers to statements about reality, not to reality itself."

What he means by "consistent", to be exact, not really sure. I am currently trying to explain to him that:

Objective: Independent of man’s interpretations and evaluations.

Subjective: Dependent/Contingent upon man’s interpretations and evaluations.



Oh, and Jody, I asked him to restate his argument in a way that totally seperates reason from experience.

In response to my challenge, he stated: "Yeah right."

Then he looked up the definition of reason in dictionary.com,
reason:
v. rea•soned, rea•son•ing, rea•sons
v. intr.
To use the faculty of reason; think logically.
To talk or argue logically and persuasively.
Obsolete. To engage in conversation or discussion.

And stated, thereafter: "So, whether an argument is reasonable, is whether the argument is logical."

I reinformed him of the inter-changeability of the two words - logic and reason - as demonstrated by Ed Thompson earlier. So I rechallenged, once more.

He said: "Yeah right" I used a double-positive to create a negative, which logically is incorrect. This is a counter-example to the logician's worldview; that refutes the logician's worldview.

I told him I fail to see how how this is an example of stating an argument in a way that uses ONLY experience divorced from reason. It is an IMPOSSIBILITY. How he doesn't see this, is beyond me.


Well, and so it goes.

(Edited by Warren Chase Anspaugh on 10/26, 2:35pm)


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Wednesday, October 26, 2005 - 7:58amSanction this postReply
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Warren,
1.) Empirical evidence is the sole source of knowledge.
2.) Empirical basis is the sole determinant in judging the correctness of statements.
3.)Logic "as a pretender to truth" is exclusively concerned with structure of statements and not their references to reality, nor any references to reality.
I agree with these statements. I'm guessing your pal thinks of "empirical" as mere observation, rather than systematic, logical, tested observation. Empiricists of today aren't merely observers. They have to interpret their observations, in that they view their observations in light of previous predictions and categorizations. If their observation is inconsistent with previous predictions and categorizations, i.e., illogical, they know that they are in error.

 
Then he continues: "If you say that reality is consistent with itself, I would agree with that. However, contradiction, in logic, refers to statements about reality, not to reality itself."
From a contemporary logician's standpoint, this is correct. Logic refers just to statements about reality. And it's horribly uncontroversial to claim that logical contradictions exist. "A is B; A is not B" - there's a logical contradiction. <shrug>. I suppose you could say that this logical contradiction exists objectively, so contradictions exist objectively, but that's missing the point. The question is really whether reality can contradict itself. Can something that exists simultaneously be itself and not itself? No; again, horribly uncontroversial. I think you and your pal agree here.

Last, the terms "logic" and "reason" are not interchangeable. Logic is necessary but not sufficient for reason. Or: a logical argument can still be unreasonable. For example: "X is a rabbit, all rabbits are astronauts; therefore, X is an astronaut." This is logical (or logically valid, as some would say) but unreasonable (or, a little confusingly, logically unsound, as some would say). How do we know it's unreasonable? Experience. We've met some rabbits who aren't astronauts.  

Jordan


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Post 16

Wednesday, October 26, 2005 - 11:48amSanction this postReply
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Seconding what Ed Thompson has said, if your conclusion is observably false, then whatever led you to that conclusion is not reason.  Having some argument or other isn't sufficient to make the argument reasonable.

In the situation Anspaugh describes, Rand would say "check your premises".  In many of these cases where an apparently sound chain of reasoning leads to a false conclusion, though, the premises are fine and the deduction is what needs fixing.

Peter


Post 17

Wednesday, October 26, 2005 - 3:48pmSanction this postReply
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Jordan, I said that logic is the primary means or method of reason. In this thread, they are operationally equivalent (I didn't say logic was metaphysically identical with reason). And Objectivists don't use the contemporary, academic, over-differentiated concept of logic that you are here. This is what I meant when I said:

============
Warren, after Kant and Berkeley came along, folks began to think of "reason-in-itself" -- as if it could REALLY be separated from experience.
============

Just like axiomatic concepts, logic needs to be integrated with experience, because that's the purpose that logic and axioms serve (to tie together experiences). So when you bring up the over-differentiated, under-integrated academic view of logic (below), then you muddle things somewhat.

============
For example: "X is a rabbit, all rabbits are astronauts; therefore, X is an astronaut." This is logical (or logically valid, as some would say) but unreasonable (or, a little confusingly, logically unsound, as some would say). How do we know it's unreasonable? Experience.
============

In the Objectivist view, counterfactuals ("Well, if reality wasn't like it is, but if it was something else, then ... ) aren't "logical." In Objectivist argument, there is not ever a valid case for severing the tie to reality. What is arbitrary, is not logical. Folks who under-integrate logic (e.g. academicians) are using a tool for another purpose -- yet they're keeping the name. The distinction is subtle, but illuminating.

Picture someone who's lost his hammer -- and has taken to pounding in some nails with a screwdriver. He may say that he's 'screwdriver'ing-in the nails, but in actuality, he is hammering in the nails. He's using a tool for something other than its purpose, but calling it by the same name. In a mitigated sense, he can "get away" with using the screwdriver as a hammer, it's just that that's not what screwdrivers are for.

An Objectivist line of reasoning wouldn't fail to integrate the purposes of the tools argued over (in the case of a man-made tool, its "purpose" is its "identity"). Logic and experience are -- together -- the dual-source of human knowledge.

Ed

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Wednesday, October 26, 2005 - 5:10pmSanction this postReply
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Ed,

I figured Warren's pal is non-Objectivist, so I figured he'd get more mileage from using "logic" in the more traditional way. I didn't have any big bones to pick with your comments to him. I just happen to think the traditional (strict) view of "logic" is preferable in philosophy conversations. Just keeps things nice and neat. To be sure, in using that term we still have all the stuff for good integration, what with advent of validity and soundness. So far as I can tell, requiring both validity and soundness is akin to your requirement of "logic and experience."

Also, I know Rand said she rejected counterfactuals, but I'm skeptical that she knew what she was rejecting. Almost all of tort law involves counterfactual reasoning. When determining whether a defendant caused a plaintiff's injury, we almost always ask, "but for the defendants conduct, would the plaintiff's injury have occurred when and as it did?" That inquiry is nestled snuggly within counterfactual reasoning. If you disagree with me on counterfactuals, let's not kill Warren's thread. Let's start a new counterfactual thread.

Jordan


Post 19

Wednesday, October 26, 2005 - 6:02pmSanction this postReply
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Thanks for the clarity, Jordan.

I agree that counterfactuals have a place in life (just not in an objective philosophy -- one for living on earth). For instance, counterfactuals -- as you say -- have a place in tort law, and probably also are viable method to utilize in human creativity/ingenuity (e.g. What if it had been painted orange? What if those pillars were rearranged?)

Ed

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