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Post 100

Tuesday, April 27, 2004 - 8:51pmSanction this postReply
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Hi, Craig.
 
As an aside I speculated: >>As for the quantum world, I suspect its non-deterministic appearance is a function of our ignorance of its true nature -- perhaps as 11-dimension spacetime -- rather than a genuine failure of causality.<<
 
You asked: >>How is it that you can speculate on a plausible, reasonable, answer to a question so similar to the ones that you interject the impossibility? :)<<
 
I take your point, but there is a valid distinction.  I have no experience of the effects of quantum mechanics, so I must speculate within the confines of what is scientifically plausible.  As for volition, I have direct experience that it appears to operate in a manner contrary to the causality that everything within the realm of science is subject to.  Because I have experienced something that has no scientific explanation, it is reasonable to consider if my volition is part of another realm in which I may lack the ability to understand as comprehensively as the scientific realm.
 
You continued: >>We don't know why volition seems to be present in humans. But we can't make something up, and we can't assume the presense of God.<<
 
I agree.
 
You:  >>The Law of Identity cannot be taken away from anything that exists. What are we saying when we say that something exists without identity? We're just babbling words. If we find a spot in the Universe we can't understand, such as volition in a physical being, then all we can say is that we don't know. We can't make-up explanations.<<
 
True, we can't just make up things.  But we still need to account for things that have no objective identity, such as volition.  I can indirectly identify your volition by identifying you as you make a decision, but I have no means of comprehending it directly and objectively.  I can't measure it like your heartbeat; I must simple assume it's there.  This indicates to me that we can have knowledge of real things even if it is not reducible, even in principle, to objective identification, or science.  

Regards,
Bill a.k.a. Citizen Rat


Post 101

Tuesday, April 27, 2004 - 9:13pmSanction this postReply
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Robert:
 
Me to Craig: >>If the universe lacks uniformity, how does that impact the Law of Identity?<<

You: >>It doesnt.<<
 
Craig and I were discussing the experience of volition which appears to defy the causality that the entirety of the physical universe is subject to.  In this context, Craig stated that the [physical] universe need not be uniform and therefore may permit noncausal phenomena.  This raises an issue regarding the Law of Identity.
 
Causality states:  If A then B.  However, if the universe is not uniformly subject to causality, then at times we might have:  If A then C.  Of course, B is not C, and so A is not always A.  For this reason I disagreed with Craig's speculation about a non-uniform physical universe.

Me: >>What I'm getting at, Craig, is it possible that the Law of Identity is an artifact of the limitation of our human reason?<<

You: >>here, like kant, you wish to declare reason limited in order to make room for faith.<<

 
You're almost as good a mind-reader as Michael Smith, Robert.
 
My point was commonsensical.  I was comparing human reason to any other human capability, all of which are limited.  For example, our sense of smell is not as keen as a dog's.  So we know it could be improved.  If that is so, on what basis do we assume our reason, in its present state, is perfectly capable of comprehending, in principle, everything that exists?
 
To wit, I pondered that maybe human reason is keenest only when it comes to things that can be understood scientifically.  If so, it would be subjectivism to believe that reality must consist only of things that can be understood scientifically because that is the limit of our reason.  Restricting reality to only that which is reducible to science on that basis would be akin to saying an odor doesn't exist because we cannot smell it.
 
Regards,
Bill a.k.a. Citizen Rat

(Edited by Citizen Rat on 4/28, 8:52am)


Post 102

Wednesday, April 28, 2004 - 8:47amSanction this postReply
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Hi, Regi.
 
You concluded your answer to me with this:
It is only in this sense that volition is also, "free of physical causality," because volition is an aspect of a living organism. Volition can choose anything that is physically possible, not just anything at all, and requires knowledge, for example, to choose anything. Life, consciousness, and volition all have specific natures with specific requirements that determine how they function and can be used, just as physical entities do, but the principles that govern the psychological aspects of existence are not physical. If that is all you mean by, "free will," fine, but it is not what most people mean by it.
We're close in our understanding of volition as free will.  By free will I do mean "free of physical causality" as you define the phrase, and I certainly do not mean free to do anything contrary to the laws of nature.  For example, I cannot will myself to defy gravity.
 
I find it interesting to read what you have written on this subject and on the nature of life, Regi, because you have expressed much of what I believe is true about these things in terms I have not considered before.  Yet, I'm not in complete accord with you, and I haven't been able to put my finger on it.  I'm going to have to give this some thought.  Meanwhile, I want to thank you for the time you have taken to answer my questions.
 
More on this later.
 
Regards,
Bill a.k.a. Citizen Rat


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Post 103

Wednesday, April 28, 2004 - 5:33pmSanction this postReply
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Regi: “To deny the concept man is to deny there are men, and the denial is mistaken.”

Only if one subscribes to a specific epistemological theory (I use the word loosely), that concepts mean all their referents. In that case, a denial of the meaning of the concept entails a denial of the actual existence of the referents. But this notion is flawed, in that meanings are non-material and are attributed to minds. If the meaning of the concept existence is found in its objects, this implies that existence is primarily mental, which implies idealism.

The flaw here is the failure to distinguish between sense – roughly the meaning of the concept, the knowledge we have of the referents -- and reference, the real-world objects that the concept refers to. With the sense/reference distinction, it becomes quite possible to challenge – deny -- the claimed meaning of a concept without denying its referents.

 Regi: “Contingent on what? Except for the man-made, no entity is contingent on anything if it is a "real-world" entity.”

Contingent is this context means “doesn’t have to be”, therefore, all real-world existence is contingent.

Brendan: “Another difficulty with the above quote is that if the concept of existence is included under the phenomenon of consciousness ...”

Regi: “It isn't. Consciousness is included as one of the referents of existence.”

Yes, consciousness is one of the referents of the concept existence, but so are the contents of consciousness, including the concept existence. So the concept existence is self-referential.

Let’s run though this again. We have a concept, existence, which is the product of consciousness. This concept means all real world phenomena, including real consciousness and its contents. One of the contents of real consciousness is the concept existence. We are now back where we started.

Therefore, the argument merely begs the question, so the concept existence as Rand uses it isn’t really about the world. More than that, since the starting point is a concept, this implies primacy of consciousness.

Regi: “That does not mean the concept consciousness subsumes, as one of its referents, the concept existence.”

I think you need to read my comment again. I didn’t say the concept consciousness subsumes the concept existence. I said consciousness does, that is, real consciousness.

Brendan


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Post 104

Wednesday, April 28, 2004 - 8:12pmSanction this postReply
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Brendan,

I am only going to give brief responses here, because you have assaulted me with absurdities. I do not mean you intended them as assaults, or that you are not sincere, only that you are very mistaken.

Regi: “To deny the concept man is to deny there are men, and the denial is mistaken.”

Only if one subscribes to a specific epistemological theory (I use the word loosely), that concepts mean all their referents. In that case, a denial of the meaning of the concept entails a denial of the actual existence of the referents. But this notion is flawed, in that meanings are non-material and are attributed to minds. If the meaning of the concept existence is found in its objects, this implies that existence is primarily mental, which implies idealism.

The flaw here is the failure to distinguish between sense – roughly the meaning of the concept, the knowledge we have of the referents -- and reference, the real-world objects that the concept refers to. With the sense/reference distinction, it becomes quite possible to challenge – deny -- the claimed meaning of a concept without denying its referents.

A concept means its referents. A concept performs only one function, it identifies an existent or class of existents.

Tell a child that says, "I want a banana," that what he means by banana is "non-material," and try giving him something non-material. What the child and everyone sane person means by a banana is a real material banana.

What I mean and every sane person means by any concept is the actual entity or existent or the entities or existents of a class the concept identifies. Any other view is absurd.

Contingent is this context means “doesn’t have to be”, therefore, all real-world existence is contingent.

Whatever is, has to be. Whatever is not man-made or the result of human choices always had to be. Any other view is absurd.

Yes, consciousness is one of the referents of the concept existence, but so are the contents of consciousness, including the concept existence. So the concept existence is self-referential.

No. The term "self-referential" as a fallacy only pertains to those things which refer to themselves for verification. The concept existence is not validated by the fact that the concept itself exists, and is not self-referential. To think so is absurd.

I didn’t say the concept consciousness subsumes the concept existence. I said consciousness does, that is, real consciousness.

Than you spoke nonsense. Consciousness does not "subsume" anything, it is only aware of things, perceptually. More absurdity.

Please do not assault me with any more.
 
Thank you.

Regi

 


Post 105

Wednesday, April 28, 2004 - 11:57pmSanction this postReply
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Reg:

"Whatever is, has to be. Whatever is not man-made or the result of human choices always had to be. Any other view is absurd."

do I take you as saying that the universe could not have come out any different than it did? that the facts could not have been any other way? not just metaphysical facts, but every particularity? life had to evolve on earth? the universe had to be set up the way it was? with the precise topology and geography it had?

please substantiate this assertion. its one thing to say that A = A, and that things must be what they must be. it is quite another to say that all particulars of how the cosmos turned out are absolutely necessary.

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Post 106

Thursday, April 29, 2004 - 4:16amSanction this postReply
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 Robert,

do I take you as saying that the universe could not have come out any different than it did? that the facts could not have been any other way? not just metaphysical facts, but every particularity? life had to evolve on earth? the universe had to be set up the way it was? with the precise topology and geography it had?

I mean the same thing Leonard Peikoff means by, "The Objectivist view of existence culminates in the principle that no alternative to a fact of reality is possible..." [Objectivism: The Philosophy of Ayn Rand, P. 23]

please substantiate this assertion.
 
Substantiate it yourself. Look around at the world as it is right now and ask yourself a question, "how could this possibly be any different?" Obviously, it could only be different if something acting in the past acted differently in some way than it actually did. Since the behavior of all existents is determined by their nature, and no existent can behave contrary to its own nature without violating the A is A fact, nothing could have acted in the past differently than it did, unless it had a different nature than it actually did.

You do not believe anything that exists today can suddenly just be something other than what it is. At what point in history would this not have been true. Everything that ever existed must always have acted as it did because it was what it was. Since nothing in history could possibly have acted differently than it did ...you know the rest.

Why people find this so alarming I cannot imagine. What now exists had to get this way somehow, and there are only two possible ways. Excluding the mystics belief that a god or some other mystic force caused everything (which certainly is not an escape from determinism) our present state either got this way as a result of absolute inviolable laws or it got this way in some willy-nilly haphazard undiscoverable way. We either live in a world that is absolutely certain (even if largely unknown) or a world in which nothing is certain. There is no middle ground.

Regi


Post 107

Thursday, April 29, 2004 - 5:50amSanction this postReply
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I would add that this also applies to the ultimate nature of the universe, above and beyond any changes that happen within it: there is no possible alternative to it. It is the standard of any possible explanation of any phenomenon whatever. When you ask "Why?" about anything, you seek in the end to know the underlying causative reality that could not be otherwise.

Peikoff sums this up: "There is no problem of grasping that a fact is necessary, after one has grasped that it is a fact" (IOE, 109).


Post 108

Thursday, April 29, 2004 - 5:12pmSanction this postReply
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Rodney,

You said, "I would add that this also applies to the ultimate nature of the universe, above and beyond any changes that happen within it: there is no possible alternative to it. It is the standard of any possible explanation of any phenomenon whatever. When you ask "Why?" about anything, you seek in the end to know the underlying causative reality that could not be otherwise."

Yes, of course. That definitely needed to be added.

Thanks!

Regi 


Post 109

Friday, April 30, 2004 - 12:56amSanction this postReply
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Regi: “A concept means its referents. A concept performs only one function, it identifies an existent or class of existents.”

Only at its most basic level. If I say “table” in the presence of a table, I am certainly identifying an existent, but if I tell my child to “act wisely” I am issuing a command. Concepts can be used to perform several functions.

Regi: “Tell a child that says, "I want a banana," that what he means by banana is "non-material,"”

When a child wants a banana, it wants a ‘yellow, bendy, mushy thing’. One can then offer an object that conforms to this description. But compare and contrast a ‘yellow, bendy mushy thing” to ‘third world export commodity’. The two senses are quite different, but the referent is the same object

Regi: “Whatever is, has to be.”

Take a real world example: plate tectonics. The current world land masses are of specific shapes and sizes, as a result of aeons of movement of the earth’s surface. There’s no reason to suppose that the end result had to be these specific shapes and sizes. They could have been different. If existence exists is a necessary truth, and the term means all its referents, at least some of which are contingent, you have a problem with your meaning of the term existence.

Regi: “The term "self-referential" as a fallacy only pertains to those things which refer to themselves for verification.”

So how is the concept existence verified? One of Rand’s claims is that the axiomatic concepts are perceptually evident, which in the face of it is nonsense, given that non-material entities cannot ordinarily be perceived. Another is that axioms are “present” in the mind with the very first perception, but since Rand denies both innate ideas and a priori intuition, it’s unclear how they become so present.

Both of the above are unconvincing attempts at an empirical verification, and as the logical positivists discovered, it’s unclear whether the verification principle is itself tautological or empirically verifiable. Rand’s use of the undeniability argument as a justification lends weight to the view that it’s the former, in which case Rand’s concept existence is certainly self-referential.

Brendan


Post 110

Friday, April 30, 2004 - 9:51amSanction this postReply
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Brendan:
 
So how is the concept existence verified? One of Rand’s claims is that the axiomatic concepts are perceptually evident, which in the face of it is nonsense, given that non-material entities cannot ordinarily be perceived.
 

 
Axioms are perceptually self-evident. The proof of "existence exists" is the fact that you are perceiving it. No other proof is possible or necessary.  You learn this when Aristotle (or someone) tells you, "that thing which you are perceiving right now is existence".  The lesson is reinforced when you realize that even an attempt to deny this axiom rests on the axiom.

The concept of existence cannot be given a standard definition with a genus and differentia -- because existence is the set of all genuses and there is nothing from which it can be differentiated. Thus, existence must be defined ostensively, i.e. by pointing at reality.


Post 111

Friday, April 30, 2004 - 5:17pmSanction this postReply
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Michael: “Axioms are perceptually self-evident. The proof of "existence exists" is the fact that you are perceiving it... "that thing which you are perceiving right now is existence.” 

Michael, you may like to describe the perceptual characteristics of this entity you call existence – its weight, colour, texture etc. If you cannot do that, you may like to re-visit the above claim.

Michael: “The concept of existence cannot be given a standard definition with a genus and differentia…”

In which case, on Rand’s epistemology, ‘existence’ cannot be a concept.

Michael: “Thus, existence must be defined ostensively, i.e. by pointing at reality.”

So point away. Paint us a picture. Let us see it.

Brendan


Post 112

Friday, April 30, 2004 - 10:42pmSanction this postReply
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Sorry, but is that last post by Brendan serious?  Are you leading us somewhere with this?

Post 113

Saturday, May 1, 2004 - 12:53amSanction this postReply
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quote

Michael: “Thus, existence must be defined ostensively, i.e. by pointing at reality.”

So point away. Paint us a picture. Let us see it.

Uhhhh, ok.  I was going to try and remain aloof from this discussion, but this is just silly.  If there's no existence, how exactly did you make the characters that form that quote, and how am I perceiving them?  Why does Michael need to paint you a picture when you're clearly painting one yourself just by typing those words?


Post 114

Friday, April 30, 2004 - 11:46pmSanction this postReply
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Jeremy: “Sorry, but is that last post by Brendan serious?  Are you leading us somewhere with this?”

Anywhere you want to go, Jeremy, although the destination is far from certain. After all, you do admit that you…“rub my remaining two brain cells together and write all that stuff up there, exhausting myself emotionally and physically to the point of choking down 73 Prozacs…”

Not a good look, Jeremy. How far can we progress on your two remaining brain cells?

Brendan


Post 115

Saturday, May 1, 2004 - 3:08amSanction this postReply
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Brendan, at least Jeremy's brain cells are axiomatic!  :)

Post 116

Saturday, May 1, 2004 - 2:08pmSanction this postReply
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I've never breathed such an amused, exasperated sigh all at once.  But I'll refrain from dipping any further of my toes into this murky, tepid pool, while Brendan points the way to nonexistance.  Have fun with that.  (That?  Is that real?  Is what i just wrote about that real?  Is what I just wrote about what I just wrote real?  What's real?  Is my brain?  If it is, why isn't everything else?  If my brain's fake, I can't rely on it to percieve what's real.  If I can't percieve truth I may as well shut up and get on with dying.  Ah, but the struggle is the glory, isn't it?)

Post 117

Sunday, May 2, 2004 - 10:31pmSanction this postReply
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Andrew, Jeremy. This has gotten a bit out of hand. On re-reading my above comments to Michael, they are rather sharp and somewhat unclear, for which I apologise.

I have never denied the existence of minds and external objects. Refer my post 78: “Sure you can point to the existence of an external world by reference to your experience of objects that exist apart from your own self. That’s what I would do.”

This part of the thread has been about concepts and their referents, if any, and the relevant quote from Rand was: "The units of the concepts "existence" and "identity" are every entity, attribute, action event or phenomenon (including consciousness) that exists, has ever existed or will ever exist."

Rand appears here to be identifying the concept ‘existence’ with the concept ‘identity’, and by way of the units, identifying both concepts with real existence and real identity. But as was pointed out long ago, existence is not obviously identical – the same as – identity. What we can say of existence is that it is non-specific, omnipresent, necessary, eternal. On the other hand, identity is regarded as specific, localised, contingent, temporal. Seen this way, the two concepts are anything but identical. Therefore, when Michael says, “that thing which you are perceiving right now is existence” he appears to be saying that real identity is identical to real existence, which is not at all obvious. And since the meaning of existence rests on the assumption that identity is existence, it is therefore not axiomatic.

Brendan


Post 118

Monday, May 3, 2004 - 10:24amSanction this postReply
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Brenden:

When you perceive that something exists, you are perceiving that, "It is." You are perceiving the self-evident fact that "It is", which means it exists, and the self-evident fact that "It is", which means it possess identity. Existence and identity do have the same referents, but they represent different steps in cognition. Thus, in Rand's formulation: "Existence exists" is one step. "Existence is identity" is another step. "Consciousness is identification" is the third.


Post 119

Monday, May 3, 2004 - 4:16pmSanction this postReply
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I'll mention, I broke my silence when it seemed the discussion had turned into "philosophy for its own sake", or as I said before, "the struggle is the glory"; and not the particular end achieved by that struggle.  Whenever anyone ever utters a phrase like "Well, I doubt existence exists" or "How do we know what's real?"  or some variation of the two, it immediately turns the discussion into a philosophical parlor trick to amuse your "high"-browed buddies.  I don't see the use in it, except that it's the favorite sleight-of-hand of slaughterers and madmen all over, and makes them easier to spot in a crowd. 

But I guess the talk is more specific now, so I'll clamber back into my cage.

(Though I would like to know the desired result of philosophies which deny objective reality, and our abilities to perceive it.)

One Love, Peace!

Jam Masta J



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