| | Tibor,
I just started researching this, and then I came to the conclusion that I will end up picking a fight with too many people if I give examples from them. I look at their arguments and they usually do not admit a cognitive level - only the normative. I was gratified, however, to see more people understanding my message than I thought.
So I will give one example from Ayn Rand only. Remember, I am talking about using the same word to mean two different things. (Just like in my article, I was talking about using the same act for two different values.) The word in this case is "rights."
At the very beginning of Rand's article called "Man's Rights," she immediately qualified this word with another word, "individual." Within this context, she mentioned that former societies were amoral in terms of individual rights (which she sometimes called simply, "rights"), because they stood outside of individual morality. yet she did mention that they were founded on some kind of ethics.
Later, she used expressions like "The Divine Right of Kings," and FDR's "economic bill of rights," among other such, which she claimed were not rights according to the concept she had defined. Her concept was individual rights, and I don't believe that she was saying that the word "rights" did not exist at all as meaning something else - other types of powers and entitlements - under other standards. In fact, she herself had just used the word "rights" to mean them.
As she progresses, she starts saying things like, "Any alleged 'right' of one man, which necessitates the violation of the rights of another, is not and cannot be a right."
We obviously know that this last word is the qualified "individual right under a rational ethics." This is the normative concept.
However, she uses the cognitive concept as it suits her - so the phrase of "an 'alleged' right cannot be a right" starts being used - as above. In the first case ("alleged 'right'"), she is talking about the social contract (cognitive), and in the second, she is talking about the concept of individual rights (normative).
This has led far too many people to start saying that xxxxxxx (like social security) is not a right, when a person gets a paper from the USA government stating that it is a right. When he discusses this with an Objectivist or Libertarian, he is told that the word on his government paper is not really the proper word at all, but an error by the government.
There is a tug of war with the same word, when the real battle should be with the different concepts. I am sure that you know many people to whom this difference is clear, but you also must know far too many fanatics who simply deny the existence of the term as used by the USA government.
That is a very strong example of what I am talking about. It is important to define a term cognitively, and then in normative terms when appropriate. Far too many of these fanatics do not say that the normative concept of individual rights is the good and proper under rational ethics (which I hold as correct) - they say that the cognitive concept of the word "rights" does not exist at all.
Cognitive "blank-out."
There are other examples and I have projected an article on this confusion that gets caused by cognitive/normative mixups when the same word or term is used for both.
I hope this answers your question. I really don't want to go into all the bickering of last week by dragging quotes from some of the posters. When you mention Rand's heroes, I have seen that minds turn off instead of turning on like they should with Ayn Rand, then acrimony starts instead of discussion.
Anyway, if you have another question, I will gladly answer it. But for others, I am leaving this discussion. I have said clearly what I wanted to say and I am tired of bickering with those who deny things like the existence of a word or the existence of an act when a strong emotional issue is involved.
Michael
|
|