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Wednesday, May 17, 2006 - 3:46pmSanction this postReply
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So, in the course of a discussion the other day, I attempted to convince my friend that morals and rights are absolute, and objective. I explained that every living organism needs a heirarchy of values in order to live, and that for each organism, the standard of value was its own life. My friend replied that morals were not absolute, they are dependent on man's existence. I replied that he was right, in a sense, that morals do not exist independent of life. Morals are a human concept. They are not a physical entity. They are simply a set of rules, if you will, which guide us through reality, and since reality is objective, morals are as well. I will refer to my friend from here on out as DA (devil's advocate). Please note, I am not an expert, that is why I am posting this conversation, I would like to hear your input.
 
DA:  I don’t see morals as objective reality. If something’s existence is dependent upon man I don’t see it as absolute. I see it as just human conjecture. You are putting your faith, if you will, in the statement “morals are objective” like others do in religion and the quotes are coming from your holy books. You said it yourself, “Morals are a human concept”. Men in their nature are fallible and capable of being irrational.
 
Me: Every philosophy relies on axioms, that is, certain premises with no proof, they are self-evident. From what I’ve read, the three axioms that the philosophy of Objectivism is based on, are existence, identity (A=A), and consciousness. Try to deny any of these; I don’t think it’s possible. Most attempts at denial invoke the fallacy of the stolen concept, in other words, in attempting to deny something, they invoke that which they are trying to deny as proof. For example, if I asserted that we are not conscious; my assertion is in fact proof that I am conscious. So how does this relate to morals? To be honest, I am not 100% sure, but I’m going to give it a whirl. Any attempts at denying morals, are based on a standard of death. For example, the morals that I have presented, are based on life as the standard of value. If you attempt to deny the truth in these morals, then you accept death as the standard of value. Now, here is where it gets tricky. That life is the standard of value; I believe 99.999999% of people would accept. But can I prove that that is the way it should be, and that the objective nature of existence requires it? Now, obviously if death is the standard of value, no other values are possible, so in effect this would actually be a rejection of values, and the fact that living creatures exist is proof that values exist. After all, the concept of value is devoid of meaning detached from the concept of life.
 
DA: Can something be absolute, but have an exception?
 
Me: I would have to say, by definition, no. Absolute means always.
 
DA: If [a man's] right to exist is absolute you could only defend yourself to the point of stopping him without violating his rights. You could not kill in self defense. You could flee. You could use enough force to stop him without violating his rights. You could not kill him and be moral.
 
Me: I would have to say, upon further examination, man’s right to exist is not absolute; hence the death penalty is perfectly acceptable. His right to exist within the framework of our natural rights is.
 
DA: I would like too know what the absolute rights are as you see them though especially if his right to exist isn’t an absolute right. Can you have any absolute rights if you don’t have the right to even exist? All of your rights, if you had any, could be taken away. Wouldn’t everything else be irrelevant?
 
Me: Any concept is essentially meaningless unless it can be applied universally. So in our example, the concept of man’s rights would have to apply to every man, (I would qualify that as every rational man), in order to be useful. Think about it for a second. How can a man invoke a right that he does not recognize? If a man violates another man’s rights, and we attempt to punish him or use retaliatory force, what defense can he claim? That we are violating his rights? Then he has already admitted that every man has inalienable rights, and must recognize that he is guilty of violating those same rights he is claiming for himself. So in this example, we can see that the right to existence is not absolute. This does not mean that no one has the right to life, only that one must respect the rights of others to claim rights for himself. You do raise an interesting question. “All of your rights, if you had any, could be taken away. Wouldn’t everything else be irrelevant?” I think it’s important to recognize that these rights cannot be denied arbitrarily.
 
DA: I think it leaves man defining rights and how those rights are applied. If every one agrees upon those rights, how they are applied, and the limitations of those rights everything is dandy. If someone breaks those rights and you have an agreed upon punishment and the power to enact it you are dandy. Does that make it just? I think it only makes it just to those who have agreed upon all of the rights, limitations, etc. There is no absolute right or wrong.


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Post 1

Wednesday, May 17, 2006 - 4:51pmSanction this postReply
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Jonathan, rights are absolute and universal; they apply to all human beings, but there can be no right to violate rights, which is a contradiction in terms. So, whereas the initiation of force is a violation of rights, retaliatory force is not. You have a perfect right to kill an aggressor in order to defend your own right to life. Since he has no right to take your life in the first place, he has no right to be allowed to do so. And if killing him is the only way to disallow his action, then you have a perfect right to kill him in self-defense. He has no right to preserve his own life, if by doing so, he will destroy yours. Quoting Galt in Atlas Shrugged, "No, I do not share his evil or sink to his concept of morality: I merely grant him his choice, destruction, the only destruction he had the right to choose: his own. He uses force to seize a value; I use it only to destroy destruction." (p. 1024).

- Bill

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Post 2

Wednesday, May 17, 2006 - 5:01pmSanction this postReply
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In reality, all morals and rights are relative, but Objectivist morals and rights are absolute in the sense that they are must-dos if one wishes to further their own existence, rather than disintegrate.
 
They are an "is-ought" established on a specific "if-then", e.g. if one wants to live, then there are decisions one must make to support one's own life. There is a motive for pro-survival action, hence this moral-ethical code ought to be followed, because reality exists in a certain way and man exists as a specific creature [A is A].

Case in point: One must be rational if one wishes to live to their fullest. This is an absolute, objective fact - independent of any wishes, feelings and foot-stamping. The only alternative is to act upon mere whim - a guaranteed path to self-destruction.


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Post 3

Wednesday, May 17, 2006 - 5:11pmSanction this postReply
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There is no absolute right or wrong.
Ask him if that's his absolute final answer?  :)  If he says yes, terminate the discussion. You can't have a rational discussion with someone who doesn't accept that values are absolute (starting with the value of his own life. It doesn't matter what other people think of his life. It's about what he thinks of it.) 

It's difficult to defend the politics (individual rights) without a solid understanding of the ethics (morals and morality) holding it up.

Reject the idea that morality is all about "punishment."  It's not. It's about learning what's great and good, and distinguishing what's great and good from what's not so great, let alone "good."

"Rights" refer only to actions within a social context. Actions between two or more people.

"Morals" aren't dependent on a social context. You don't need to have a group of people around to hold a code of ethics.  Even a hermit needs a code of ethics if he wishes to survive.

A hermit (as do all humans) also needs a stable and predictable environment, free from coercion of others he doesn't choose to hang out with. It's his cave. He has a "right" to defend it, to maintain his stable and predictable environment which facilitates his survival. Predictability helps insure the outcome of one's own actions toward one's environment and reality at large.  He has the "right" to defend his cave from invaders, just as well as he has the "right" to defend his own life.  A hermit's (or anyone's) property translates to survival it'self.

(Edited by Teresa Summerlee Isanhart on 5/17, 5:12pm)


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Post 4

Wednesday, May 17, 2006 - 6:13pmSanction this postReply
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I don't think DA sounds like the run-of-the-mill subjectivist, but has probably just always been exposed to 'absolute' morality as from religion. (Because the common perception about absolute morality that DA seems to share, I even prefer to avoid the term 'absolute' in favor of 'contextual' when talking about rational ethics. Referring to 'absolute, contextual' ethics can be valid - it just gets into more semantic sidetracks.)

"DA: Can something be absolute, but have an exception?"

That best sums up his different understanding of what 'absolute' rights means. The key concept he's missing is context. Objectivist ethics take context into account which sets it apart from religion and other absolute moralities which assume intrinsic value of items or actions. e.g. intrinsic values such as 'all life is good', 'all charity is good' lead to related rules such as thou shalt not kill, etc.

As Bill and others noted, however, rational morality is not as simple as 'thou shalt not kill' - or even necessarily 'thou shalt not kill except in self defense' (eg. 3rd party defense, hostage scenarios). The point is contextual ethics has to take context into account, so given potentially complex situations, it's difficult to proscribe simple commandments of the form people would be used to in religious absolute morality. On the other hand, the fact that context properly depends on situation rather than person is what still sets contextualism apart from subjectivism, and in that sense it is absolute.


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Wednesday, May 17, 2006 - 6:29pmSanction this postReply
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I should note, DA has been very receptive to my ideas. Discussing these issues has helped me gain a clearer understanding of man's rights, etc. I think he is just asking me to prove my assertions, and I haven't been able to. I'll take the blame for that. But he hasn't been hostile, lest you get the wrong idea.

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Friday, May 19, 2006 - 5:47amSanction this postReply
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DA's response:
 
Jonathan, rights are absolute and universal; they apply to all human beings, but there can be no right to violate rights, which is a contradiction in terms. So, whereas the initiation of force is a violation of rights, retaliatory force is not. You have a perfect right to kill an aggressor in order to defend your own right to life. Since he has no right to take your life in the first place, he has no right to be allowed to do so. And if killing him is the only way to disallow his action, then you have a perfect right to kill him in self-defense. He has no right to preserve his own life, if by doing so, he will destroy yours. Quoting Galt in Atlas Shrugged, "No, I do not share his evil or sink to his concept of morality: I merely grant him his choice, destruction, the only destruction he had the right to choose: his own. He uses force to seize a value; I use it only to destroy destruction." (p. 1024).

- Bill

 
His own statements are saying the right to exist is conditional. Something is not absolute “unless this”. He could make the argument that you have an absolute right to retaliate against force that has been thrust upon you in order to protect your own life. This would be a logical argument. Do you get where I’m coming from with this? I don’t know if his statements had you back to the absolute nature of the right to exist or not. I have a related question for you. Person A kills person B. Person A is no threat to person C. Is it good of person C (does person C have the right) to kill Person A? Person C could say it is obvious Person A will kill me, but is it? If Person A makes no attempt to use force against Person C then the destruction of Person A is not necessary to Person C’s existence. I’ll consider this as I go through the other responses.


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Post 7

Friday, May 19, 2006 - 7:28amSanction this postReply
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Not conditional, but contextual......

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Friday, May 19, 2006 - 9:43amSanction this postReply
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Excellent responses folks (all around)!

Ed


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Friday, May 19, 2006 - 8:11pmSanction this postReply
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Jonathan, you quoted DA's response to me as follows:

His own statements are saying the right to exist is conditional. Something is not absolute “unless this”. He could make the argument that you have an absolute right to retaliate against force that has been thrust upon you in order to protect your own life. This would be a logical argument. Do you get where I’m coming from with this? I don’t know if his statements had you back to the absolute nature of the right to exist or not. I have a related question for you. Person A kills person B. Person A is no threat to person C. Is it good of person C (does person C have the right) to kill Person A? Person C could say it is obvious Person A will kill me, but is it? If Person A makes no attempt to use force against Person C then the destruction of Person A is not necessary to Person C’s existence. I’ll consider this as I go through the other responses.

Good response, DA. I see what you're getting at. I can't use my previous argument, because it depends on protecting the life of the victim, not someone other than the victim. Hmm. Well, let's see. Couldn't you say that Person A forfeits his own right to life, having taken Person B's life? What we want here is a principle which protects the innocent and deters others from violating their right to life. So, a principle which forbad murder, but justified retaliatory force against a murderer would do that better than a principle which forbad murder, but allowed people to get away with murder, wouldn't it?

However, there is a caveat here: Capital punishment may be unjustified for other reasons, namely, the possibility that an accused murderer is innocent. If we could know for sure that someone committed murder, then he would forfeit his right to life. But if there's any possibility that he could be innocent, then killing him would prevent him from being compensated, should new evidence arise that overturns his conviction. Still, it would be best to incarcerate him for life, not only because it sends a message to other would-be murderers that they can't expect to commit murder and get away with it, but also because it removes the murderer from society and prevents him from committing any future murders.

- Bill

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Friday, May 19, 2006 - 8:51pmSanction this postReply
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I don't understand the example. Why would we not consider Person A to be a threat to Person C? If one has demonstrated a callousness for human life by unjustly initiating force, I see no reason to believe Person A would not continue, as it is clear what guides Person A is thuggery. If we are to judge people based on their actions, then Person A clearly demonstrates a willingness to kill without just cause, and Person C has every right to fear for his life. Person C does not have to wait until Person A takes any kind of initiation against Person C. Person A like Bill has said has forfeited his right to life.

However I think Capital punishment as Bill you stated, is not necessarily a good choice. If we can confine Person A, to say life in prison, we have succeeded in keeping Person C safe. I agree Bill that too often the legal system has made mistakes in executing innocent people.

But as far as waiting for a thug to strike again, or assuming he won't, is suicide. To not take action against Person A means you have given up your own right to life, it means through your inaction, you have approved Person A's behavior and invite Person A to continue his irrational behavior. This is why I am sympathetic to the argument for pre-emptive strike in war (But I don't necessarily agree with how it has been applied as of late). If a beligerent nation, such as say WW2 Germany, has systematically conquered nation after nation, no nation within its grasp should feel safe. Eventually, given enough time, the spread of this tyranny will reach to you if left unchecked.
(Edited by John Armaos
on 5/19, 9:07pm)


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Saturday, May 20, 2006 - 6:01amSanction this postReply
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Just for the sake of argument let's say person A was a husband who catches his wife(person B) in bed with another man and kills her. Do we know for a fact that person A would ever be a threat to person C who may be anyone else.


L W


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Post 12

Saturday, May 20, 2006 - 8:00amSanction this postReply
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Why can't Person A remarry, catch his future spouse cheating on him, and kill again since he's already demonstrated he'd be willing to do so in that situation?

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Post 13

Saturday, May 20, 2006 - 8:48amSanction this postReply
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L.W. Hall wrote,
Just for the sake of argument let's say person A was a husband who catches his wife(person B) in bed with another man and kills her. Do we know for a fact that person A would ever be a threat to person C who may be anyone else.
Well, suppose that we let Person A off scott free, and he remarries, only to find that, horror of horrors, his second wife is unfaithful as well. A, it seems, has a terrible time picking faithful partners! So, he comes home one day and finds her in bed with another man. Hey, he says to himself, they didn't punish me for the last murder, so what do I have to lose, as he pulls out his German Luger and dispatches her without a second thought. And while he's at, he kills the guy she's with. How dare that creep get involved with my wife! Serves him right! Meanwhile, other husbands who've caught their wives cheating know that they too can get away with murder. No need to be a sports hero and have Johnny Cochran as their lawyer.

And why stop with jealous husbands. Joe caught Sam cheating on him at Poker. Joe didn't like Sam much anyway; turns out, they had strong political disagreements as well, but to lose $10,000 to the bastard, because he cheated at cards?! Well, that was the last straw! So, after the game, Joe waits for Sam in an alley and stabs in the back. Joe doesn't bother to cover up the crime, though, because he figures his attorney can make a good case that he's not a threat to the other players or to anyone else who doesn't double-cross him.

And so it goes...

The moral of the story? Once you start making exceptions for crimes of passion, you're on a slippery slope that can justify practically anything. After all, every crime has a motive of some kind; why should jealousy or anger be considered more significant or exceptional than any other motive?

- Bill

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Post 14

Saturday, May 20, 2006 - 9:36amSanction this postReply
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John, I didn't realize that you written a similar reply to L.W. before posting mine. Sorry for the essentially duplicate post. All I did was embellish a bit on the point that you had already made! Of course, great minds think alike and all that! :)

- Bill

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Saturday, May 20, 2006 - 9:40amSanction this postReply
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LOL, well Bill I am humbled you would even jokingly equate me at your level of intellect. Perhaps one day I'll get there but I'm still learning. But you clearly gave a more detailed and adequate response :)

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Post 16

Saturday, May 20, 2006 - 12:29pmSanction this postReply
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And so the message of wife-as owned, a piece of property, comtinues to prevail......[sigh]


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Saturday, May 20, 2006 - 1:21pmSanction this postReply
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     Are 'rights' absolute?

     In the framework of O'ism, they are...because...(drum roll)...they are1st and foremostly, basically identified with 'needs and/or conditions for man to live qua man.'

     Clearly, such needs include the need to continue surviving, and acquiring whatever's necessary (needed) for that (air, food, shelter, sleep-time, etc). --- After that comes the 'flourishing' needs to round off the meaning of 'qua man' concerned with improving his life situation. Here, of course, is where many arguments start as to what constitutes 'flourishing' in terms of common necessities.

     Who can argue that the (can we say common) needs of all humans re surviving are...absolute? Can one really accept that they are merely 'relative', conditional, or dependent-on-other-things? I can't see how one can sensibly accept that.

     Further, IDENTIFYING just what these basic needs/'rights' are, is also part of the O'ism framework. But, that's another subject.




     Now, the question as to when, where, how, and why (or not) one should RECOGNIZE these 'rights' in others, is a whole set of separate questions, as well as what the difference is between NOT-Recognizing them vs 'violating' them (such as when we imprison someone; their 'rights' ARE being, well, de-limited thereby.)

     Thought I'd clarify some things as food-for-thought, keeping in mind that we're supposedly all talking within the framework of O'ism, and not randomly free-wheeling over the terms 'rights' and 'absolute.'

LLAP
J:D

(Edited by John Dailey on 5/20, 1:27pm)


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Saturday, May 20, 2006 - 3:11pmSanction this postReply
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And so the message of wife-as owned, a piece of property, comtinues to prevail......[sigh]
Huh? Why do you say that, Robert? I don't see the connection. A jealous wife could kill her philandering husband too. Would that imply that she viewed him as her property? No, not necessarily; she could simply have been upset that he cheated on her.

- Bill

Post 19

Saturday, May 20, 2006 - 4:10pmSanction this postReply
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Thanks Bill and John A for your replies to my question.

I need to separate out what I consider two different thoughts on what I asked:

In Williams post he made a case for person A paying the price so to speak for the murder of person B which deprived him/her of their life and a deterrent factor by sending a message to others that murder will not be tolerated.

Now in the first part of John's post he makes this statement:

I don't understand the example. Why would we not consider Person A to be a threat to Person C? If one has demonstrated a callousness for human life by unjustly initiating force, I see no reason to believe Person A would not continue, as it is clear what guides Person A is thuggery. If we are to judge people based on their actions, then Person A clearly demonstrates a willingness to kill without just cause, and Person C has every right to fear for his life. Person C does not have to wait until Person A takes any kind of initiation against Person C. Person A like Bill has said has forfeited his right to life.




Whereby person A is seen as a threat to person C by the nature of having committed murder once; but the problem I have with this is that using my example-and just for the moment laying aside the argument set forth by William which is totally valid-we have to assume that because someone killed in a fit of jealous rage he/she would continue to be a threat to a person C.

In order to do this I believe you would have to move from the possibility of it happening to the probability of it happening which would presuppose the probability of person A finding themselves in the same situation again. I do not believe simply saying it happened once and so it will happen again holds true for a lot of situations. Remember the question this spun off from was whether person A is a threat to person C after murdering person B.

 In order to make the jump from a possibility to a probability which John seems to be  implying (a true threat to person C not just the possibility of one) what would we use as objective proof?


Maybe what I am asking is a little clearer than mud.  :-)


...............................................................................................................................................

Robert,

Hopefully nothing in the way I posed my first question came across as any belief on my part that any human should be considered chattel.



L W

(Edited by Mr. L W Hall on 5/20, 8:13pm)


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