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Wednesday, October 8, 2003 - 2:49amSanction this postReply
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In Ayn Rands "Introduction to Objectivist Epistemology" in the chapter on axiomatic concepts, she quotes, when discusing the "reification of the zero", Sartre as having said "Nothingness is prior to being". I've been told that is not true and that Sartre actually said "Being is prior to nothingness". Was this an oversight on Rands part? Does anyone know?

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Wednesday, October 8, 2003 - 6:51amSanction this postReply
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A Google search of "Sartre being nothingness prior" yields:

http://www.bbk.ac.uk/eh/eng/conf/anotherbeckett/sheehan/survey.html

Responding to Hegel, Sartre resists the dialectical interchange of being and nothing that is becoming. He asserts, instead, "that being is prior to nothingness and establishes the ground for it. By this we must understand not only that being has a logical precedence over nothingness but also that it from being that nothingness derives concretely its efficacy." Nothingness therefore owes its existence to being, and not vice-versa; in Sartre's famous phrase, "nothingness haunts being".

Paul

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